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HGTC Surgical Technology > Chapter 24 Neuro Exam > Flashcards

Chapter 24 Neuro Exam Flashcards

Wilson, Andrews, and Hall frames are examples of positioning devices used for:

A) anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion

B) craniectomy for craniosynostosis

C) lumbar hemilaminotomy

D) ulnar nerve transposition

Which retractor has a proximal hook placed in the wound and a distal hook for attachment of a weight or sandbag using a sterile Kerlix roll for suspension?

B) Greenburg

What is the name of the set of instruments used for anterior cervical diskectomy and fusion that includes retractors, spreaders, bone dowel cutters, impactors, and others?

C) Mayfield

D) Yasargil

Which part of the vertebra projects most posteriorly and is often palpable through the skin in the convex areas of the spine?

C) spinous process

D) transverse process

What is the name of the outfolding convolutions of the brain?

A) fissures

B) foramina

Which of the following is a result of torn bridging veins between the cerebral cortex and venous sinuses?

A) CSF fistula

B) epidural hematoma

C) subarachnoid hemorrhage

D) subdural hematoma

For which surgical procedure would petroleum gauze nasal packing be used as part of the dressing?

A) burr holes for evacuation of subdural hematoma

B) carpal tunnel release

C) lumbar microdiskectomy

D) transsphenoidal hypophysectomy

Which anatomical structure is the tough band that encases the intervertebral disc material?

A) annulus fibrosis

B) circle of Willis

C) intervertebral foramina

D) nucleus pulposus

Which instrument is used to strip and separate the galea and pericranium from the skull before placement of burr holes?

A) #11 scalpel blade

B) #1 Penfield dissector

C) Gigli saw malleable guide

D) Langenbeck periosteal elevator

What is the name of the structure on which the pituitary gland sits?

B) foramen magnum

C) odontoid process

D) sella turcica

What is another name for the first cervical vertebra (C-1)?

C) cauda equine

D) odontoid

What is the name of the structure that produces cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

A) cauda equina

B) cavernous sinus

C) choroid plexus

D) corpus callosum

Posterior fossa craniectomy is performed for pathology involving the:

A) cerebellum

B) frontal lobe

C) parietal lobe

D) lateral ventricles

What is the distal-most area of the spinal cord or spinal nerves called?

A) corpus callosum

B) filum terminale

C) nucleus pulposus

Which of the following is used for scalp hemostasis and resembles a Crile or Kelly hemostat except the curve is to the side?

Which of the following neurosurgical retractors has attachments for malleable brain spatulas and retractors?

A) Adson-Beckman

B) Leyla-Yasargil

C) Scoville

How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

Carpal tunnel syndrome is treated by:

A) incising the transverse carpal ligament to decompress the nerve

B) placing Gelfoam between nerve and ligament for padding

C) removing or reshaping the surrounding carpal bones

D) transposing the median nerve out of the bony tunnel

Which of the following is the lowest part of the brain stem and contiguous with the spinal cord?

A) hypothalamus

B) medulla oblongata

C) midbrain

Where do most intracranial aneurysms occur?

A) arterial bifurcations

B) tunica media

C) venous sinus

D) venous valves

The visual cortex of the brain is located in which region?

B) occipital

C) parietal

D) temporal

Papaverine is used in craniotomy for aneurysm clipping to prevent:

A) clotting

B) hemorrhage

C) infection

D) vasospasm

Into which anatomical structure or area is the distal catheter most often inserted in a V-P shunt procedure?

A) peritoneal cavity

B) pleural cavity

C) pulmonary vein

D) pyloric sphincter

How many vertebrae are there in the normal adult spine?

What is the term for a deep groove in the cerebrum that separates the brain into lobes?

The instrument called a Kerrison is a(n):

C) elevator

D) retractor

Craniosynostosis is a congenital defect involving:

A) blocked ventricular passages

B) failure of neural tube closure

C) pituitary hormone imbalances

D) premature cranial suture closure

Which of the following bilateral paired nerves are the largest in the body and innervate the buttocks and lower extremities?

A) peroneal

C) trigeminal

Which of the following are countable surgical sponges used in neurosurgical procedures to protect delicate tissues?

A) compressed Gelfoam

B) Cottonoid patties

C) Kittner dissectors

D) Weck-Cel spears

Which of the following is a primary benign tumor that arises from the protective coverings of the brain?

A) astrocytoma

B) ependymoma

D) meningioma

What is the largest part of the human brain?

A) brain stem

B) cerebellum

C) cerebrum

D) diencephalon

Which portion of the normal spinal column has five (5) vertebrae?

A) cervical

B) thoracic

D) coccygeal

All of the following are examples of congenital anomalies EXCEPT:

A) arteriovenous malformation

B) craniosynostosis

C) herniated nucleus pulposus

D) intracranial aneurysm

Which surgical procedure treats compression of the median nerve by a transverse ligament?

A) anterior cervical diskectomy

C) lumbar laminectomy

D) rhizotomy

Which portion of the spinal column consists of five fused vertebrae in the average adult?

What is the name of the measuring device used to assess intraventricular pressure?

A) capnometer

B) manometer

C) oximeter

D) tonometer

What is the name of the dural fold that separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum and may be used to delineate surgical approach in reference to it?

B) falx cerebri

C) falx cerebella

D) tentorium

Which instrument is used to extract pieces of the nucleus pulposus in a diskectomy?

A) Kerrison rongeur

B) nerve root retractor

C) Penfield dissector

D) pituitary rongeur

Penfield #1 through #5 are:

A) aneurysm clips

B) dissectors

C) drill bits

D) scalp clips

Which of the following layered structures has the closest and most intimate contact with the brain?

A) arachnoid

When incising the cranium between burr holes, what attachment to the powered craniotome is necessary to prevent injury of underlying tissues?

A) #3 Penfield dissector

B) dural guard with footplate

C) smoke evacuator

D) wire-pass drill bit

What is the anatomical area where cerebrospinal fluid circulates over all parts of the central nervous system?

A) circle of Willis

B) epidural space

C) pericranium

D) subarachnoid space

Which position is usually used for microdecompression endoscopic diskectomy?

B) lithotomy

Osteophytes are:

A) bony spurs

B) hardened discs

C) liament attachment points

D) malignant spinal tumors

What is the name of the dural fold that separates the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum?

B) choroid plexus

C) falx cerebri

D) falx cerebelli

Which of the following is a radiographic diagnostic procedure performed for suspected aneurysm near the circle of Willis?

A) cerebral angiogram

B) electroencephalogram

C) lumbar myelography

D) pneumoencephalography

Which diagnostic study demonstrates a herniated disc causing spinal compression and radiographic filling defect?

A) angiography

B) electromyogram

C) myelogram

D) cross-table x-ray

Which facial sinus is used for surgical approach to a pituitary adenoma rather than traditional craniotomy?

C) maxillary

D) sphenoid

Which of the following results most often from skull trauma over the middle meningeal artery with symptoms progressing to brain-stem herniation if not treated?

B) intracranial aneurysm

C) epidural hematoma

In which procedure are the esophagus, carotid artery, and trachea retracted medially for access to the area of pathology?

B) fronto-temporal craniotomy for aneurysm

C) placement of ventriculo-atrial shunt

D) rhizotomy for intractable trigeminal neuralgia

What part of the body is prepped for ulnar nerve decompression or transposition?

A) anterior neck

B) lower extremity

C) posterior back

D) upper extremity

Monro, Sylvius, Magendie, and Luschka are:

A) aqueducts and foramina

B) cranial nerves

C) cranial base fossae

D) neural plexuses

Fiducials placed on bony landmarks are used in which type of neurosurgical procedure?

A) transsphenoidal hypophysectomy

B) insertion of ventriculo-peritoneal shunt

C) stereotactic guided-imagery biopsy

D) selective facet rhizotomy

Which approach is MOST desirable for treatment of herniated cervical disc with subsequent intervertebral fusion?

A) anterior midline

B) anterior medial

C) posterior midline

D) posterior medial

The circle of Willis is a:

A) network of connected arteries at the base of the brain

B) structure of supporting connective tissue for the brain

C) complex neural network that connects the two hemispheres of the brain

D) series of channels and foramina within the cerebrospinal fluid network of the brain

Which instrument could be used for burr-hole cranial perforation if no powered equipment is available?

A) Cloward bit

B) Gigli saw

C) Hudson brace

D) Penfield dissector

What is the name of the group of spinal nerves that continue from the distal spinal cord at about L-2 in the average adult?

B) corpus callosum

C) filum terminale

D) foramen magnum

Which anatomical structure is the soft, gelatinous part of the intervertebral disc, which is sent as specimen after diskectomy?

B) intervertebral foramina

D) posterior longitudinal ligament

What is the name of the horseshoe or pin fixation device for neurosurgical cranial positioning?

D) Penfield

From which area is an autologous bone graft usually procured for anterior cervical fusion procedures?

B) cervical spinous process

C) iliac crest

D) lumbar spinous process

HGTC Surgical Technology (29 decks)

• Chapter 1 Orientation to Surgical Technology Key Terms
• Chapter 13 Diagnostic Procedures Exam
• Chapter 14 General Surgery Exam
• Chapter 15 OBGYN Exam
• Chapter 16 Eyes Exam
• Chapter 17 ENT Exam
• Chapter 18 Dental Exam
• Chapter 19 Plastics Exam
• Chapter 20 GU Exam
• Chapter 21 Ortho
• Chapter 24 Neuro Exam
• Chapter 19 - Plastic and Reconstructive Surgery Key Terms
• Chapter 22 Cardiothoracic Key Terms
• CRQ Med Term 1
• CRQ Med Term 2
• CRQ Med Term 3
• CRQ Med Term 4
• CRQ Anatomy 1
• CRQ Anatomy 2
• CRQ Anatomy 3
• CRQ Anatomy 4
• CRQ Aseptic Technique
• Cranial Nerves
• Medical Terminology - Prefixes
• Medical Terminology - Suffixes
• Antomy Terminology - Prefix and Suffixes
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1 . Question

Future costs that differ among alternative courses of action are known as ____________ costs.

2 . Question

____________ means that a company has decided to acquire its goods from outside vendors rather than produce the same goods or services in-house.

3 . Question

The selling price minus all variable costs is termed the ____________.

4 . Question

Expenditures related to programs and projects that influence financial performance of multiple accounting periods are termed ____________ expenditures.

5 . Question

Future value concepts relate to ____________ interest, wherein interest is computed on principal plus previously computed interest.

6 . Question

____________ is the name often given to the process of calculating the present value of future cash receipts.

7 . Question

The ____________ method requires the present value of an investment’s cash inflows to be netted against the present value of the cash outflows.

8 . Question

The ____________ focuses on the average income generated by a project in relation to the project’s initial investment outlay.

9 . Question

____________ is a capital budgeting tool which computes the interest rate necessary to equate cash inflows and cash outflows.

10 . Question

The ____________ method is simple, yet it ignores the time value of money and cash flows which occur beyond a designated period of time.

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